Romans 3:21 - 26

Romans 3:21 - 22
But now the righteousness of God apart from the Law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference

We'll need to take it slow through this passage, as these are among the most contentious words in the book of Romans for several reasons. Much theology is built off of them - much theology which (to me) disagrees with the essential Orthodox conception of God as love.

First, the righteousness of God (possessed by or belonging to God) exists apart from the Law. This is evident because a) God pre-exists the Law and b) the preceding chapters of Romans outlined conclusively that righteousness pre-existed the Law both in Jews (like Abraham) and in righteous Gentiles who live apart from the Law (being "law unto themselves").

So the Law is not equivalent to righteousness. Rather the Law and Prophets prophecy about the righteousness of God. They prepare the heart / nous to recieve that righteousness, but they are not themselves that righteousness. And since we are judged according to our deeds (as per Romans 2) the Law and Prophets are incomplete apart from the righteousness of God.

This can be seen in Luke as well, when on the road to Emmaus, Christ said: "O foolish ones, and slow of heart to believe in all that the prophets have spoken! Ought not the Christ to have suffered these things and to enter into His glory?" And, beginning at Moses and all the Prophets, He expounded to them in all the Scriptures the things conerning Himself. (Luke 24:25-27)

So this righteousness is CHRIST'S righteousness (who fulfills the Law by demonstrating how it points to Him and fulfills it by living righteously). It is CHRIST'S faithfulness that reveals the righteousness of God (since He is God). The word "now" in Romans 3:21 refers to the "end times" which Christ initiates. It also refers to the post-Pentecost period in which the righteousness of Christ (of God) is revealed to the faithful by the Holy Spirit.

So those who have faith in Christ (who believe Him to be God, trust Him to save them, and seek to follow His commands and live by faith) have the righteousness of God revealed to them by the Holy Spirit. This, necessarily, occurs in the Church since that is where we recieve the Scriptures and the teachings that enlighten those Scriptures for us to understand them. Furthermore, it was to the Apostles and the community of disciples that the Holy Spirit was sent, and it is this same Holy Spirit that reveals the righteousness of God.

Therefore this revelation of God's righteousness is "to all" since the Church is, as St. Paul is arguing in Romans, an inclusive institution open to Gentiles and Jews equally. And it (this revelation) is on all since the Holy Spirit is given equally to the Gentiles and Jews. This is revealed fully in the Book of Acts. It is revealed to those who believe since, if one does not believe, the righteousness of Christ would not be the revelation of the righteousness of GOD, but merely a human righteousness and therefore of no more worth than any other human righteousness.

This leads to St. Paul's conclusion that "there is no difference" between Jews and Gentiles, but rather that both are equally recievers of the Holy Spirit's revelation of the righteousness of Christ and, therefore, through faith are able to recieve the righteousness of God that the Law and Prophets prophesied.

Romans 3:23
For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God

"For all have sinned." This is subject to the same (lengthy) reasoning I wrote in the previous post. Christ did not sin, so we know this is not a literal "every" but rather a tool to humble us. It is a collective "all." I have sinned. Jews have sinned. Christians have sinned. Gentiles and heretics have sinned. The saints sinned. This does not mean, as it is sometimes expanded to mean, that we are BORN with sinfulness. The Orthodox Church clearly states that we CHOSE our sins, and in so much as an infant cannot chose anything morally, not having the cognitive development, they are not held to account for that "sin" (if it can even be called that).

At what point do we gain that capacity to sin? God alone knows. I know at some point I crossed that line, and that's sufficient for St. Paul's point here. Remember, this WHOLE passage is referring to the Jews, to remind them to accept the Gentile converts as equal inheriters of Christ's message and righteousness. If all have sinned, then the Jews are no better than the Gentiles (aside from their having the prophecies and tutoring of the Law and Prophets, which does not produce righteousness but prepares the heart for Christ).

The Orthodox Study Bible has an excellent commentary on the second half of this verse, that we fall short of the glory of God: "The ultimate purpose of man's existence is to attain the glory of God. Even if a person were to keep the whole law, he would still fall short of that glory, because he would still be bound by death. The glory of God is both eternal righteousness and eternal life. Jesus Christ alone lived in completed righteousness, and He alone was resurrected from the dead. Therefore, He alone is the fullness of the glory of God, and we receive that glory in Him"

Since none of us can recieve theosis (divinization / partaking of the divine nature) by ourselves, since we are completely incapable of uniting the divine and human, since none of us can enter the grave and overcome death (but are instead overcome by it) - NONE of us can save ourselves. The law can do none of these things, and neither can the prophets. We cannot glory in them, but must instead look to the righteousness of Christ (God), who CAN do these things and HAS done these things. He conquered death on the cross, united the physical and divine in the Incarnation (which we enter by baptism, as St. Paul will describe later), and gave us the Holy Spirit to bring us INTO righteousness.

So we ALL fall short of God's glory if we try to get there on our own terms (which, in the case of the Judaizers, was through the Law; today we might point to people who pick and chose elements of a religion to follow, or make up their own spirituality, or Christians who reduce the faith to a sinner's prayer). This means, to continue the thoughts of the preceeding section, that we are equal before God. Even the righteous (the patriarchs, the prophets, the Theotokos Mary, the Apostles, the martyrs, the ascetics, the holy fathers and mothers of the Church, the saints) are dead before God unless Christ Himself enlivens them by His death on the cross.

This leads St. Paul to the next section, and it is CRITICAL to see it in this context:

Romans 3:23 - 25
For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forebearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed

We are made just by God's grace. That is self-evident, and explained thoroughly in the preceeding chapters (see prior posts). We don't chose our own righteousness, and even if we do, we are entirely dependent on Christ's death to conquer death and Christ's incarnation to unite us to God. This is communicated to us through grace - through the Holy Spirit whom God sends equally on the Jew and the Gentile.

The redemption which is in Christ Jesus is precisely this: we are redeemed from death (the consequence of sin) because God, in Christ Jesus who (as a man) could die, brought Life (God being life) INTO death. At the point that death contains life, it becomes a road to life. No longer, when I die, do I die into separation from God, but I, through God's grace, die into UNITY with God. When I die, I die WITH Christ - WITH God. God is EVERYWHERE - even in death.

Further, the barrier between God and man - the barrier of the curtain in the Holy of Holies - is torn assunder by Christ's incarnation. In a certain way, this complete unity of God to man was COMPLETED on the cross. God literally became as we are: rejected, suffering, dead. Through this, God is not brought down to our level (for that is impossible; nothing can diminish the glory of God). Rather, we are dragged UP to GOD.

The langauge of propitiation here has often been used to justify a "satisfactionalist" or "penal substitutionary" model of the cross - something which is foreign to Orthodoxy for several reasons.

1. First because it makes God a tyrant. God commands us to forgive freely. Yet according to satisfactionalism, God Himself demanded payment in blood before granting the fullness of His forgiveness and mercy. If I were to "imitate" God in this way I would be viewed as a tyrant and unmerciful fool. Even if I were to make the payment myself (as God does in this model) it would still be viewed as foolish. If God wishes to forgive, He may simply DO so. We profess that He does.
2. It makes sin GOD'S problem rather than ours. We sin, God gets mad (and therefore rejects us in His just wrath). God sends Christ, who appeases God's wrath, and then God is ok with us again if we accept Christ. EVERY change in that scenario is GOD'S. Yet we profess that God doesn't change. Sin isn't God's problem - its OURS. WE are the ones in need of change - not God.
3. It externalizes sin. It lets me "off the hook" so to speak. Because the problem is one of courtroom-style "guilt" or "innocence" the ACTUAL righteousness of the sinner in question is neglected. No longer are we judged for our deeds (as Romans 2 says we are), but rather we are judged through CHRIST'S deeds. Instead, Orthodoxy prefers to think of sin as an ontological problem. If we are not GENUINELY transformed in Christ into living by faith, then we are not saved. If we still fall short of the glory of God (i.e. are not united to God through Christ) then we are not saved. Salvation, in the Orthodox view, is a long journey, not a moment of being declared "not guilty" (while both we and God know full well that we are guilty). God DOES forgive us; we just don't see it as the CENTRAL idea of salvation.

So then what does St. Paul mean by "propitiation" here? The word can be translated "expiation" (which does carry more of an ontological "God removes sin" sense to it), but I think the answer is simpler. He's following through on his idea that the Law and Prophets prophecy Christ to us. The concept of propitiation / expiation (the idea that death eliminates sin) stems from Leviticus. Indeed, the mercy seat of the temple and the altar both communicated God's mercy through sacrifice. These sacrifices didn't cure the sin, but prophesied of the means by which God would redeem us: through Christ's death.

The propitiation of the Levitican Law PROPHESIED the propitiation of Christ on the cross. Just as the EXODUS of the Israelites prophesied of the EXODUS Christ would bring to the Church. But to mistake the "type" (the model) for the entirety of the thing described (as is done in penal substition) would be to remove the mystery from the cross. One can describe the cross as a propitiation of God for our forgiveness, but if we take that as anything past a metaphor (a pedagogical tool demonstrated prophetically in Levitican Law) we run into the above problems.

Historically, the early Church knew this. Irenaeus of Lyons and Athanasius both write about the cross and the salvation God granted us there, and both use several metaphors - both do not refer to this verse as a starting point for a satisfactionalist view of the cross. That wouldn't start until Anselm of Canterbury in the 12th century. The 12th century. 1000+ years of Christians read this verse without concluding penal substitution as the sole Biblical idea of the cross. It is therefore NOT apostolic tradition to do so.

We may see this internally in the passage as well. No where does it prescribe WHO is being propitiated (the penal substitution model assumes it is God or God's justice / wrath). Metaphorically, it could be the personified "death" to which St. Paul frequently refers. Christ dies, propitiating the apetite of death and "satisfying" it (filling it with life).

Furthermore, the passage itself goes on to interpret the meaning (ultimately) of this propitiation: by his blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness.

Christ's death - His redemption of us by His TOTAL solidarity with humanity (in suffering and death) and His overcoming of the human condition by His glorious divinity - this demonstrates God's righteousness. How? First, by Christ's total obedience (even unto death). Second, as St. Paul indicates here, because in His forebearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed.

Take careful note of this: Romans 3:21-25 is about the demonstration of God's righteousness apart from the Law (though prophesied BY the Law). God is faithful; He redeems us through the cross (by uniting us to Him and His glory, which we were unable to do) and He does this DESPITE our sins (of which we are all guilty, all falling short of God's glory). This act of Christ on the cross was prophesied by the Levitican sacrifices (called propitiation).

That fits into Paul's overall themes of discussing how Judaism "fits" into Christianity without excluding the Gentiles, and it never requires us to conclude penal substitution.

Therefore, as St. Paul concludes this passage, this act of Christ crucified was to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus (Romans 3:26). The cross demonstrates the righteousness of God (understood by those who have faith) and declares GOD as JUST (for God is faithful, despite our sins), and, by uniting us to God it opens us to the grace of God which comes by the Holy Spirit to those who live by faith. Therefore, God, through the redemption He earns for us on the cross, is able to unite us to Himself and He becomes the JUSTIFIER (the one who makes just) of the one who has faith. This act of justification makes us into children of Abraham - it makes us live by faith (Romans 2).

Forgive me,
Macarius

Romans 3:10 - 20

Romans 3:10 - 18
As it is written: "There is none righteous, no, not one; There is none who understands; There is none who seeks after God. They have all turned aside; They have together become unprofitable; There is none who does good, no, not one.

"Their throad is an open tomb; with their tongues they have practiced deceit; The poison of asps is under their lips; Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness. Their feet are swift to shed blood; Destruction and misery are in their ways; And the way of peace they have not known. There is no fear of God before their eyes."

This passage is often used as a proof-text for the Western vision of original sin (that we are all born under sin, guilty of Adam's sin from birth). Indeed, when taken literally, the statement "there is no one righteous, no, not one" would, necessarily, include infants as well as adults.

However, this is not the Orthodox understanding of this Psalm nor do we accept Augustinian original sin. Rather, it is clear, if we think this through in light of the doctrine of the Gospels, that this statement "there is none righteous" cannot mean literally every one on an individual basis. For we profess that Christ, who is one, is righteous. If there is none righteous, then Christ is not righteous, and we are still in our sins. However, Christ is righteousness, and so we know this is not to be taken literally.

Furthermore, just to prove the point again, the Bible calls many people righteous. The Church professes Mary to have been righteous. The Scriptures call Zacharias and Elizabeth both "righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinacnes of the Lord blameless" (Luke 1:6). And indeed, if God chose a righteous husband and wife to give birth to the new Elijah, His prophet John, then how much more blessed and righteous is the Mother of our Lord, the Theotokos? Joseph is called a "just" man in Matthew 1:19. The Old Testament (the context in which the quoted Psalm was written) calls several people righteous, from Abraham straight through the prophets.

What then do we make of this Psalm? First, we must recognize the literary device of hyperbole. The Psalms express human emotion in prayer before God, and the Psalmist is expressing frustration at the sinfulness of human society. It is so sinful that, at times, it feels like everyone is sinful. And indeed, so few and far between are the righteous that, for all intents and purposes, we are all sinners. Certainly, if ANY of us is righteous in our own eyes we know we are a sinner, as this sin of pride is sufficient to make us unrighteous. The Psalm, then, should humble US - it should not be used as a tool to point the finger at others.

If there is none righteous, then I KNOW that I am NOT righteous - whether I'm Jew or Greek. As for others, I cannot say, for being an unrighteous man and a sinner I lack the spiritual discernment to recognize the righteousness or sinfulness of others.

This is how St. Paul means this Psalm to be taken. He quotes it to remind the prideful - the Jews in this case (Christians in our own time) - that we are all in need of salvation, whether Jew or Gentile, Christian or nonChristian. We cannot claim membership in a GROUP as sufficient to save us. We must LIVE BY FAITH (as this is what brings righteousness). And faith in God is incompatible with any sense of prideful self-righteousness. If I have faith in God (rely on God) then God is my all and I must be a zero unto myself. A person convinced of their own righteousness cannot be this. Thus, if I am righteous, I would nod in affirmation at the words of this Psalm. If I am a sinner (as I am), I would nod in affirmation at the words of this Psalm. But if I put my faith in the Law and my ability to follow it? Well, then the way St. Paul uses this Psalm would harrow me to the bone.

Regardless, it does not necessitate original sin (indeed, original sin, as understood by the West, cannot be drawn from these verses or we implicate Jesus in sin along with many whom the Scriptures call righteous). Rather, it necessitates humility. Let us judge ourselves as lacking, and all others as righteous, and then perhaps we will become humble enough to welcome the grace of God into our hearts.

Romans 3:19 - 20
Now we know that whatever the Law says, it says to those who are under the Law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Therefore, by the deeds of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the Law is the knowledge of sin.

So then, the Jew asks, what purpose is the Law? The Law reveals us as we are: lacking God, apart from grace, without communion, and unable to pursue righteousness. If we don't know we are ill, how can we pursue a physician? The Law marks us as ill. It circumcises the heart by cutting away our pride, and forces us to be aware of the basic facts that any true ascetic knows: we cannot blame the world for our sins. Our sins originate from our own wilfulness. We will to sin. We will to not follow the fast. We will to not pray continuously. We will to disrespect life. We will to seek our own selfishness. If we were in the garden of Eden, we probably wouldn't have lasted as long as Adam and Eve. If we were in front of the Jews outside Christ's trial, we'd probably deny Him 3 times 30 times. By our very willfulnes, we commit every sin under the sun, and by the awareness of the Law we are convicted of this.

The Law, then, prepares us for Christ. It is only by seeing the GOODNESS of God (in the Law) that we can know how much we LACK it and, thereby, gain a thirst for Christ and God's righteousness which comes by faith. Christ, who demonstratably fulfills the Law makes MANIFEST (in the flesh) the righteousness of God and teaches it to us. He then unites God to us through the incarnation, and even to our death through the cross and resurrection. He over throws our fears, and, by the Sacrament of the Church sends us His Holy Spirit to give us faith and grace sufficient to repent. Righteousness comes from God; but if we do not thirst for it, we will not seek it, and if we do not seek it, how shall it come to us? We would be like those who, unaware of their sin, rejected Christ.

Forgive me,
Macarius

Romans 3:1 - 9

Romans 3:1 - 4a
What advantage then has the Jew, or what is the profit of circumcision? Much in every way! Chiefly because to them were committed the oracles of God. For what if some did not believe? Will their unbelief make the faithfulness of God without effect? Certainly not! Indeed, let God be true but every man a liar.

Having established that circumcision alone does not save someone, for it doesn't impact the nous, St. Paul responds to the rhetorical question "Why circumcise then? Why did God command this?"

A similar line of questioning provides an excellent insight into the nature and role of baptism. Circumcision being the sign of the first covenant and baptism being the sign of the second covenant means they share some things in common. One can imagine a discussion over baptism proceeding between a non-baptizing sect of Christianity (like Quakers) and an Orthodox Christian proceeding something like this:

Orthodox: Baptism is commanded by Christ! It is the sign of the covenant. One cannot be a Christian without baptism.

Quaker: Can one be saved without baptism?

Orthodox: God is certainly bigger than us, so yes - if God grants His grace to someone and heals them of their sin, uniting to them and sanctifying them, then that person would be saved, whether baptized or not.

Quaker: Can one be saved with baptism?

Orthodox: Well, it is commanded by God in the Scriptures and through the Church. It certainly isn't sufficient. We are judged for our deeds, not for our baptisms.

Quaker: What then, is the benefit of baptism if being baptized does not save us, and baptism is not necessary for salvation?

It is easy to substitute "circumcision" for baptism in the above dialogue and, more or less, you'd have a summary of Romans 2 and the first few verses of Romans 3. St. Paul does not take agree that circumcision and the Law have no purpose. He explicitly refers to the Jews having been handed the revelation of God. Similarly, the Church has recieved Holy Tradition (which does command baptism) - and this revelation is NOT made false by our inability to live up to it. The mere fact that my own sinfulness spoils my baptism does not remove the TRUTH (Christ) IN that baptism any more than the sinfulness of the Jews negated the preparation for the Truth contained in the Law.

The oracles of God instruct us - and make clear to us our failings. Only in the light of the Truth can we percieve our own lies. Circumcision, the food laws, the ethical restrictions...these restraints, these Holy ascetic disciplines were meant to circumcise the nous in preparation for the coming of Christ. On their own they can do nothing, for we do not "elect" ourselves to unity with God. Rather, the circumcised heart - the true Jew - at the coming of Christ and the joining of the Divine and human natures in Him is thereafter filled with Christ and united to God.

We cannot know what to do if we do not have the Truth. That doesn't mean that, possessing the Truth, we follow it / Him. Similarly, as St. Paul says, just because someone doesn't agree to the Truth, it doesn't negate that Truth nor negate the faithfulness of God. God is faithful - He speaks truly and He honors His covenant - it is we who are unfaithful. The Truth IS. It doesn't change. It simply IS.

So the Jew does have an advantage over the Gentile - the Jew has been given the Law which is the preparation for the Truth (Christ). This, in the Orthodox mindset, might subject the Jew (or Christian) to a more difficult judgment, since much will be expected from those who have been given much. Think of the parable of the talent. The one given 10 talents returned 20. The one given 5 talents returned 10. They were both called good and faithful. But had the one given 10 talents returned only 10? He would have been judged as the unfaithful servant who returned only 1 talent after being given 1. Despite the more demanding judgment, the Truth is always to our advantage since, by definition, the ONLY salvation is by the Truth (by unity to Christ). Anything which pushes us towards that is edifying and good.

Romans 3:4b
As it is written: "That you may be justified in Your words, and may overcome when You are judged."

It is important to recall the entire Psalm to which St. Paul is referring, rather than read these words as isolated proof-texts. This is from Psalm 50 (51) - the Psalm St. David wrote after his adultery, in repentance. It is a Psalm of a sinner repenting, and it demonstrates the proper attitude we ought to have in our repentance. We don't approach God, when we are the sinners, demanding that God give an account to us as to why His Truth didn't FORCE us to be righteous. We don't demand from God nor judge God. A penitent heart understands that God's Truth IS, and that it is WE who fail to live up to IT. God is faithful. God is justified. We are not. The Jew cannot, being the sinner, stand before God and demand an account for why circumcision didn't save him. The Christian cannot stand before God and judge Him for his failure to live up to his calling in baptism.

Romans 3:5 - 8
But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unjust who inflicts wrath? (I speak as a man.) Certainly not! For then how will God judge the world? For if the Truth of God has increased through my lie to His glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner? And why not say, "Let us do evil that good may come"? - as we are slanderously reported and as some affirm that we say. Their condemnation is just.

St. Paul here addresses another series of rhetorical questions placed into the mouths of his judaizing opponents.

To the first one, of course God isn't unjust to inflict wrath if it is we, by our free will, who have rejected God's presence and blackened our nous to Him. As in all questions of judgment, we must have faith in God. Remember the parable of the talents again - did the master demand 10 additional talents of the servant who was given 5? Of course not! We don't systematize God's judgment, nor can we speculate as to who is or is not saved. Rather, we must trust God (have faith in God) that His judgment is righteous and faithful. God knows what we have and have not had the capacity to chose. God knows our hearts better than we do. And God is love. We must trust Him.

Trusting God, we then know that if God inflicts wrath, He is justified in doing so. Remember Psalm 50. We don't demand anything from God. Rather, as the sinner, we kneel before God and accept His judgment as right. That is the only proper attitude for someone seeking God's grace.

And what is this inflicting wrath, if God is love? Many Orthodox theologians far more spiritually advanced than myself have written on this. I cannot hope to "solve" this as if it were some puzzle. It is important to note that the wrath doesn't belong to God. God isn't really really angry at us, nor is He a monarch holding our sins over us with a wrathful justice. Rather, God is love, and we, as I said above, are "judged" by our ability or inability to know that love. The infliction of wrath is the experience of God's absence, or of our absence from Him (more properly, since God is everywhere). God is love. God is not wrath. God cannot be wrath because then God would have underwent change at the fall. He would have been all-loving, then, after the fall, some combination of love and wrath and then, after forgiveness, all-loving again. This subjects God to human activity - it makes God changeable like a human being with human emotions. To be certain, Christ has human emotions, but God in His essence? We should be careful not to limit God just to make Him easier to comprehend.

The second rhetorical question asks whether we should be lauded for our sins, since the sin gives opportunity for God's grace to abound. If our sin brings God glory, then how can we be judged for it? The Judaizers don't mean to imply that this is accurate, rather, this question is meant to point out an intolerable conclusion of St. Paul's theology. They slanderously report that St. Paul wants people to sin (to not follow the Law; to not follow the food laws and be circumcized) that God's grace may abound through the righteousness that comes by faith.

They miss the point, though. They're still trying to systematize God and God's judgment, rather than accepting that righteousness is required of us, God's Truth demonstrates this to us, and God's grace enables us, by faith, to repent and follow that Truth (Christ). We should stop sinning. However, assuming that the Law will save us is false. Rather, we cease sinning by following Christ. The sign of the new covenant is not the Jewish Law - Judaism is not the center of Christianity. At the time, Judaism was extremely diverse, but all Jews had to be circumsized and agree to the Law. Since Christians rejected the Temple Cult, and saw the food laws as overridden by Christ's recapitulating of the world in Himself, and saw baptism as the sign of the new covenant (making circumcision irrelevant), they were subject to this criticism. The Jews and Judaizers saw these changes as sinful. St. Paul is arguing that they are not.

But the point here is that the accusation that St. Paul promotes sin is silly. Does he understand what is sinful in a different way from the Judaizers? Yes. But that's the whole point of His treatise in this epistle - to demonstrate that these things are not required for righteousness; that the Judaizers are wrong.

Romans 3:9
What then? Are we better than they? Not at all. For we have previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin.

This is a direct reference to St. Paul's discourse earlier in the epistle. Christians (Jewish or Gentile) aren't any better than Judaizers when it comes to sin. We aren't any better. It would be beneficial to us to remember this more often.

Does this imply a doctrine of Original Sin? To an extent, but not necessarily in the Augustinian sense, and certainly not in the Calvinist sense. Remember that St. Paul himself spoke earlier in the epistle about how someone, having never heard the Law, might be saved. This isn't a total depravity, nor are we born with guilt, rather we are born into a culture of sin by which we learn to sin, and this sin damages our nous and removes us from God. Our own sin does this, not someone else's. Yet we are subject to sin because, in reality, both Jew and Gentile live in this culture of sin and imitate it. We aren't guilty of Adam's sin, but we are victims of it, and we are guilty of the way our sin victimizes others (as we learn from and contribute to this culture of sin).

Forgive me,
Macarius